ᐅ Execution planning agreed first – then excluded?

Created on: 10 Dec 2015 09:52
C
cumpa
Good day to all forum readers and experts.

I have a small issue that I hope will be resolved soon. I signed a construction contract accompanied by an expert. It was agreed that the detailed construction planning (execution planning) is included. (We are building on our own land with a general contractor, and the building permit / planning permission was submitted two weeks ago).

The contract states: "The contractor creates a detailed construction plan for internal quality assurance. This is included in the price."

Now, we have received a confirmation of the construction contract by registered mail stating: "No detailed construction plan will be created."

Our expert is currently on vacation, and I have initially asked the house seller for clarification by email this morning. I am looking forward to a response.

I can only explain it by assuming that the detailed construction plan is indeed created but not handed over to me. Or is it usually handled differently?

I hope to receive tips and answers here.
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oleda222
24 Dec 2015 16:00
Exactly, here an employee signs a contract but it has no effect. So why does he sign it in the first place? Obviously, he doesn’t have the authority but gives the buyer that impression.

Do you get the cleaning staff to sign the work contracts and later the manager signs them, or do the contracts remain unsigned?
Musketier24 Dec 2015 19:13
Presumably without a signature, but it could also be signed by the HR officer who prepared the contract, and it would have no effect.
In the case of the original poster, however, it is clearly stated in the contract that it only becomes valid when the contract is activated through the contract confirmation. And with the signature on the confirmation, as the heading on the document also suggests, it becomes a contract for work.
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oleda222
24 Dec 2015 21:08
Musketier schrieb:
Probably without a signature, but it could also be signed by the HR officer who prepared the contract, and that would have no effect.

No effect? When both parties sign the contract, an employment agreement is established!

If the HR officer is not authorized to sign internally, this does not affect the validity toward third parties.
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Bauexperte
24 Dec 2015 21:47
oleda222 schrieb:

If the HR clerk is not authorized to sign internally, this does not affect the validity externally.

I’m wondering whether you are really a “sofa shipping agent” or just someone who would like to be one? If it were the former, you would know that voki is right and you wouldn’t be testing Musketiers’ patience right now.

Best regards, Bauexperte
Bauexperte
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oleda222
24 Dec 2015 21:59
Hopefully you read the thread carefully enough to make that statement, which isn’t always the case for you...
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Bauexperte
24 Dec 2015 22:01
Well, I am a fallible person.

Best regards, Bauexperte
Bauexperte